To talk about a certain fraction of real numbers you have to have a distribution over them. In general we take the uniform distribution if no distribution is explicitly given. That doesn't work for real numbers (it doesn't even work for natural numbers). (See https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/14777/why-isnt-ther...)
If there's no implicit default distribution, we have to pick on. I can pick one where they cover an arbitrary high percentage of real numbers..
Down the rabbit hole of pedantry: we don't need a distribution, just a measure, if we want to talk about how many reals it accepts. The Lebesgue measure is implied on the Reals if none is given, and the computable reals have measure zero.
We can't reasonably talk about a percent coverage, since the Lebesgue measure of the reals is infinite, but as a non-technical description, 'zero percent' is morally equivalent to saying it only covers a measure-zero set.
But it accepts zero percent of real numbers.