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Reading about Autonomy, it always confused me that Mike Lynch was found guilty of fraud in the UK but exonerated in the US — what's your take on that?


Different burdens of proof. The fraud charges in the US were criminal in nature which required a showing of guilt beyond a reasonable doubt. The fraud in the UK arose in the course of a civil trial with a lower burden of proof (balance of probabilities).


What's the general consensus, do you know? It seems maybe fraud occurred, but was difficult to prove conclusively?




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