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>His comments were all shared on Telegram too.

1. source?

2. Given the issues I outlined above with the word "shared", can you clarify what exactly is meant by that? Are we talking about the act of him posting to a group chat, or that other people made an conscious effort to disseminate his post?

>And the notes of the arrest here: https://www.cps.gov.uk/cps/news/man-convicted-intending-stir...

This doesn't provide any information to refute the points I presented in my prior comment.

>The guy in question pled guilty too. So he clearly admits responsibility for the attack on the hotel.

Don't confuse pleading with guilt. He faced years/decades in prison, along with any fines/legal bills. Pleading out could be a rational choice even if he was innocent.

>And that in itself should indicate that there’s more to this story than just “shitposting” on Facebook.

This is circular reasoning. If the thing being discussed was whether prosecutors were overzealous in prosecuting such tweets, you can't use the fact that he was prosecuted in arguing that arguing prosecutors weren't overzealous.

>The ironic thing is the biggest voices arguing that the UK is Orwellian don’t even realise that arrests have been happening in their own county for the same things and for much longer than in the UK.

>For example in America, 2 years ago: https://teslatelegraph.com/2023/11/14/a-man-has-been-sentenc...

>Or how about 10 years ago: https://www.mic.com/articles/54961/8-social-media-users-arre...

I'm not sure why you're still trying to argue such acts are criminal, when a few comments ago I specifically agreed with the possibility that such acts are criminal.

>[...] I agree such tweet might be illegal under US law (it plausibly meets the "imminent lawless action" standard) [...]



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