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Slip of the tongue (fingers?) when I was typing - the original figures ch4se gave were for income inequality so I stuck with that.


Well income is what gini measures and what the comment I was replying to[1] was referencing.

[1]https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=33530819


Sure, that makes sense. It's just worth noting that the U.S. are not an outlier amongst developed nations when looking at wealth inequality -- which, IMO, is the much more important metric.


Yes, that's part of my criticism for gini.




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