I'm sure I'll be downvoted for merely asking, but I'm genuinely curious: what is the evidence for discrimination? Is it simply the null hypothesis (gap, ergo discrimination) or are there studies or something that actually highlight discrimination, and if the latter, how much of the gap is explained by discrimination?
Last I asked this question, I was referred to the orchestra blind audition study (Goldin et al), but I'm pretty sure that was data from 1950s-80s, from a different industry, and didn't actually demonstrate a significant effect when accounting for large error margins.
Downvote me if you like, but at least explain the reasoning for those of us following along at home. In the worst case it's an opportunity to evangelize your point of view.
> Is it simply the null hypothesis (gap, ergo discrimination)
As far as I've ever seen, this plus occasional anecdotes, no actual data.
> Last I asked this question, I was referred to the orchestra blind audition study (Goldin et al), but I'm pretty sure that was data from 1950s-80s, from a different industry, and didn't actually demonstrate a significant effect when accounting for large error margins.
Forget the large error margins, it didn't have the effect everyone "knows" it had [0]. It even benefited the men instead of the women at certain points.
Last I asked this question, I was referred to the orchestra blind audition study (Goldin et al), but I'm pretty sure that was data from 1950s-80s, from a different industry, and didn't actually demonstrate a significant effect when accounting for large error margins.
Downvote me if you like, but at least explain the reasoning for those of us following along at home. In the worst case it's an opportunity to evangelize your point of view.