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AFAIK that's not how it works. For example go look up Microsoft's monopoly. The commonly held believe is Microsoft was declared to have a monopoly on personal computer OSes but that is false. Microsoft was found to have a monopoly on OSes for Intel based machines. So by that same logic Apple has a monopoly on OSes for A series (A10, A11, A12) based smartphones.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_v._Microsoft_Cor....



Can a company have a monopoly over its own products? That doesn't make sense.


iOS apps aren't Apple's products.


I was talking about the processor series.


A-series chips are just (very good) ARMs. I don’t buy that equivalence at all.




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