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> Ok, so is it your contention that the UK would not co-operate in similar fashion? And, if so, why? Genuine sense of political autonomy or PR?

My contention is that the US would not kidnap him from London's streets.

Word choice is important; I'm sick to the back teeth of hyperbole backed up with "wouldn't be the first time."



Is it hyperbole when it has actually happened before?

Surely a precedent means the suggestion is not hyperbolic?


I don't know why you're being downvoted. Seems reasonable to me even if I don't agree.




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