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That depends on how you define an idiot.

It's true that one half of people literally has less-than-average intelligence...



If defined traditionally (from the Greek), it's the literal truth.

http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=idiot&allowed_in_fr...


Depends on the distribution. And which average.


IQ is distributed normally.


That's begging the question.


what do you mean?


The definition of IQ says that it assumes a normal distribution, with half either side of the mean. To use the definition of IQ as a justification for the statement "half of all people have less than average intelligence" assumes that the distribution of intelligence matches the distribution of IQ.




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